The point is very clear to me: "admin" has an IP address X.X.X.X when he authenticates for the http proxy. But in the WebSecurity reporting there two entries, one for "admin" and one for X.X.X.X.
utm_kid wanted to know why that is the case.
Here comes the answer: Let's say after "admin" left the PC having the address X.X.X.X, user "bob" comes and authenticates for http proxy. "bob" now also haves X.X.X.X.
Then user "alice" comes and uses the http proxy without authentication from the same IP address X.X.X.X. So X.X.X.X is neither "admin" nor "bob".
Without authentication you can't map an IP address to a user.
Hi, I have looked at those screen shots a number of times and I can't see how you determined that from them.
Ian M
I had better go to bed, my eyes are way to tired, because I can't see any relationship in the screenshots. I understand what you are saying because I have been trying to figure out ways of stopping that without setting up a server of some kind.
Hi, I have looked at those screen shots a number of times and I can't see how you determined that from them.
Ian M
I had better go to bed, my eyes are way to tired, because I can't see any relationship in the screenshots. I understand what you are saying because I have been trying to figure out ways of stopping that without setting up a server of some kind.
